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楼主 |
发表于 2008-9-23 16:41:40
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Up until the 1950s, it was quite common for equities to yield more than gilts. That was because most shares were owned by individual investors, who were exposed to the risk that an individual company might fold. That changed with the “cult of the equity”, which saw pension funds move heavily into the stock market; their large portfolios diversified away the risk posed by any single company failing. The yield on equities fell below the yield on gilts in the late 1950s and stayed there for decades. Indeed, it was a rule of thumb in the 1980s and 1990s that equities were cheap when they yielded more than half as much as gilts.
But is this relationship theoretically sound? Sharp-eyed readers might have spotted similarities with the so-called “Fed model.” Wall Street traders relied on it in the 1990s but it let them down during the dotcom bust. This compared the prospective earnings yield on the S&P 500 (the inverse of the price-earnings ratio) with the yield on Treasuries. When the former was above the latter, shares were perceived to be cheap.
The problem with this approach is it compared a real asset (equities) with a nominal one (government bonds). Equities are a claim on a company’s revenues, which rise (over time) with inflation; bonds are fixed in price. Secondly, if bond yields fall, is this good news for equities? Either it means that inflation is expected to fall, which means that nominal profits growth will fall as well, or it means that economic growth is expected to decline, which means that real profits growth will also decline. In Japan, the slump in government-bond yields that occurred during the 1990s was not a good sign for the stock market. |
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